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ECCouncil 212-82 certification is intended for individuals who want to develop a career in cybersecurity but have limited or no experience in the field. Certified Cybersecurity Technician certification is ideal for recent graduates, entry-level professionals, and individuals who want to transition into a career in cybersecurity. 212-82 Exam is a great way to demonstrate that you have the necessary skills and knowledge to work in a cybersecurity role and to differentiate yourself from other candidates in the job market.
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ECCouncil Certified Cybersecurity Technician Sample Questions (Q112-Q117):
NEW QUESTION # 112
Alpha Finance, a leading banking institution, is launching anew mobile banking app. Given the sensitive financial data involved, it wants to ensure that Its application follows the best security practices. As the primary recommendation, which guideline should Alpha Finance prioritize?
- A. Employing multi-factor authentication (MFA) for user logins
- B. Encouraging users to update to the latest version of their OS
- C. Embedding an antivirus within the app
- D. Providing an in-app VPN for secure transactions
Answer: A
Explanation:
For a mobile banking app, ensuring secure user authentication is crucial. Multi-factor authentication (MFA) provides a robust security layer:
* Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA):
* Definition: MFA requires users to provide two or more verification factors to gain access, combining something they know (password), something they have (smartphone), and something they are (biometric verification).
* Security Benefits: Significantly reduces the risk of unauthorized access even if one factor is compromised.
* Implementation:
* User Convenience: Integrate seamlessly into the app to maintain a positive user experience.
* Enhanced Security: Protects against various attack vectors, including phishing, brute force attacks, and credential stuffing.
References:
* NIST Digital Identity Guidelines:NIST SP 800-63
* OWASP Mobile Security Testing Guide: OWASP MSTG
NEW QUESTION # 113
Ruben, a crime investigator, wants to retrieve all the deleted files and folders in the suspected media without affecting the original files. For this purpose, he uses a method that involves the creation of a cloned copy of the entire media and prevents the contamination of the original media.
Identify the method utilized by Ruben in the above scenario.
- A. Logical acquisition
- B. Drive decryption
- C. Sparse acquisition
- D. Bit-stream imaging
Answer: D
Explanation:
Bit-stream imaging is the method utilized by Ruben in the above scenario. Bit-stream imaging is a method that involves creating a cloned copy of the entire media and prevents the contamination of the original media. Bit-stream imaging copies all the data on the media, including deleted files and folders, hidden partitions, slack space, etc., at a bit level. Bit-stream imaging preserves the integrity and authenticity of the digital evidence and allows further analysis without affecting the original media. Sparse acquisition is a method that involves creating a partial copy of the media by skipping empty sectors or blocks. Drive decryption is a method that involves decrypting an encrypted drive or partition using a password or a key. Logical acquisition is a method that involves creating a copy of the logical files and folders on the media using file system commands.
NEW QUESTION # 114
Perform vulnerability analysis of a web application, www.luxurytreats.com. and determine the name of the alert with WASC ID 9. (Practical Question)
- A. X-Frame-Options Header Not Set
- B. Viewstate without MAC Signature
- C. Application Error Disclosure
- D. Absence of Anti-CSRF Tokens
Answer: C
Explanation:
Performing a vulnerability analysis on a web application involves identifying specific security weaknesses. In this case, the WASC ID 9 refers to "Application Error Disclosure."
* Vulnerability Description:
* Application Error Disclosure: This vulnerability occurs when a web application reveals too much information about internal errors, potentially aiding attackers in crafting specific attacks against the system.
* Detection and Mitigation:
* Error Handling: Ensure that error messages do not expose sensitive information and provide only necessary details to the end-user.
* Logging: Detailed error information should be logged securely for internal review without being exposed to users.
References:
* OWASP Top Ten Web Application Security Risks: OWASP
* WASC Threat Classification: WASC ID 9
NEW QUESTION # 115
A large-scale financial Institution was targeted by a sophisticated cyber-attack that resulted In substantial data leakage and financial loss. The attack was unique in its execution, involving multiple stages and techniques that evaded traditional security measures. The institution's cybersecurity team, in their post-incident analysis, discovered that the attackers followed a complex methodology aligning with a well-known hacking framework. Identifying the framework used by the attackers is crucial for the institution to revise its defense strategies. Which of the following hacking frameworks/methodologles most likely corresponds to the attack pattern observed?
- A. ISO/IEC 27001. focusing on information security management systems
- B. MITRE ATT&CK, encompassing a wide range of tactics and techniques used in real-world attacks
- C. OWASP Top Ten. focusing on web application security risks
- D. NIST Cybersecurity Framework, primarily used for managing cybersecurity risks
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive Detailed Step by Step Explanation with All References from CyberSecurity:
* MITRE ATT&CK Framework:
* MITRE ATT&CK (Adversarial Tactics, Techniques, and Common Knowledge) is a globally accessible knowledge base of adversary tactics and techniques based on real-world observations.
NEW QUESTION # 116
in a security incident, the forensic investigation has isolated a suspicious file named "security_update.exe". You are asked to analyze the file in the Documents folder of the "Attacker Machine-1" to determine whether it is malicious. Analyze the suspicious file and identify the malware signature. (Practical Question)
- A. KLEZ
- B. Stuxnet
- C. Conficker
- D. ZEUS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Stuxnet is the malware signature of the suspicious file in the above scenario. Malware is malicious software that can harm or compromise the security or functionality of a system or network. Malware can include various types, such as viruses, worms, trojans, ransomware, spyware, etc. Malware signature is a unique pattern or characteristic that identifies a specific malware or malware family. Malware signature can be used to detect or analyze malware by comparing it with known malware signatures in databases or repositories. To analyze the suspicious file and identify the malware signature, one has to follow these steps:
Navigate to Documents folder of Attacker Machine-1.
Right-click on security_update.exe file and select Scan with VirusTotal option.
Wait for VirusTotal to scan the file and display the results.
Observe the detection ratio and details.
The detection ratio is 59/70, which means that 59 out of 70 antivirus engines detected the file as malicious. The details show that most antivirus engines detected the file as Stuxnet, which is a malware signature of a worm that targets industrial control systems (ICS). Stuxnet can be used to sabotage or damage ICS by modifying their code or behavior. Therefore, Stuxnet is the malware signature of the suspicious file. KLEZ is a malware signature of a worm that spreads via email and network shares. KLEZ can be used to infect or overwrite files, disable antivirus software, or display fake messages. ZEUS is a malware signature of a trojan that targets banking and financial systems. ZEUS can be used to steal or modify banking credentials, perform fraudulent transactions, or install other malware. Conficker is a malware signature of a worm that exploits a vulnerability in Windows operating systems. Conficker can be used to create a botnet, disable security services, or download other malware
NEW QUESTION # 117
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